I am new here and am seeking help to understand my wifes ultrasound report...from a few days ago.
Is someone able to breakdown/explain the report findings below in easy to understand language?
BI-RADS average VBD% is 13.9%
The distribution of the fibroglandular tissue is essentially symmetric when the two skies are compared. On the right MLO tomosynthesis, the bowel and 11 mm mass is seen containing a few striations. No abnormality noted in the left side.
There are no malignant microcalcifications
7/4 hypoechoic spiculated mass with disruption of the surrounding planes surround by an echogenic rind. This mass measures 13x12x11 mm and is taller than wide. No increased vascularity.
A round level 1 right axillary lymph node is seen with loss of fatty hilum. The level 2 and level 3 lymph nodes are normal.
spiculated mass right breast 7/4 is highly suggestive for malignancy. There is also in* abnormal level 1 lymph node at the ipsilateral axilla.
* ("in" is this a spelling mistake or intentional?)
Hi @AdamjEdgar ,
Unfortunately I don't have any medical training.
You can google or use bing or any other search engine to look up the meaning of words, but just be aware that you might be not be fully understanding due to context.
I'd recommend going to see your GP or another medical expert for an explanation of the results.
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